Therefore even if Neanderthals were able to interbreed with humans, if the 2 species remain distinct instead of mixing freely, then they are still not considered the same species. You are correct that there are recent published claims of interbreeding between Neanderthals and humans, but there is no scientific consensus that there was indeed interbreeding. Neanderthal remains have been handled extensively, most often by Europeans, so it could be contamination instead of interbreeding, especially since the data generally shows Europeans to share the most genes with Neanderthals. In any case, these researchers do not claim that humans interbreed freely with Neanderthals. There is for example no data that shows any human female has mitochondrial DNA that belongs to Neanderthals, and also no Y chromsome data to suggest that any European had a Neanderthal father. Until such evidence shows up, there is no evidence that Neandethals actually interbred with modern humans.
it depends on the difference in DNA and if they are in fact a different species or just another branch of the same species i.e. the way different dogs can mate to produce fertile offspring , so going back to the neanderthal we both originated from the same ancestor before so the dna would therefore be similar enough to produce fertile offspring back when they mated
Sigh. I wish people would get over the genetic species definition. Just because it worked for Dobzhansky's fruit flies, he thought that it was a universal rule. It has two major faults. First, it can't be used for 99+% of organisms, the ones that are extinct and the ones that reproduce asexually. Second, There are fishes that not only breed across species lines, they are completely interfertile across generic lines.
this is a definition thing. if two groups of life can breed and produce offspring that themselves can continue to reproduce, the two groups are by definition the same species.
hybrids are everywhere. u don't hv to b the same species to make offspring. same with animals, same with plants
Or, it means that we and Neanderthals were different subspecies, not different species.
I was taught in school that if 2 organisms are genetically similar enough to produce fertile offspring, then they must be the same species. That argument was supported by the fact that hybrids, like mules who were sired by a donkey and a horse are sterile and cannot reproduce. Recently it was discovered that all non-African humans have 1% to 5% neanderthal DNA acquired through inter-species breeding. Doesn't that fact disprove the theory that 2 different species cannot beget fertile offspring when they mate? If so, it opens the door to question settled and solved classifications of modern humans